CBT Mock Test 1 - NMC Part 1 Test of Competence

NOTE: This is a “mock” test based on some of the references given in the NMC Blue Print. The test covers 4 Domains and 1 field specific competency relating to your specialism – in this case ‘Adult Nursing’. The questions provided is only a guide, individuals should review the all study material and modules provided in MMA Recruitment CBT guide.

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* 1. What is the purpose of The NMC Code?

It outlines specific tasks or clinical procedures

It ascertains in detail a nurse's or midwife's clinical expertise

It is a tool for educating prospective nurses and midwives

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* 2. When do you gain consent from a patient and consider it valid?

Only if a patient has the mental capacity to give consent

Only before a clinical procedure

None of the above

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* 3. At what stage of the nursing process does the revision of the care plan occur?

Assessment

Planning

Implementation

Evaluation

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* 4. You can delegate medication administration to a student if:

The student was assessed as competent

Only under close, direct supervision

The patient has only oral medication

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* 5. A patient recently admitted to hospital, requesting to self administer the medication, has been assessed for suitability at Level 2 This means that:

The registrant is responsible for the safe storage of the medicinal products and the supervision of the administration process ensuring the patient understands the medicinal product being administered

The patient accepts full responsibility for the storage and administration of the medicinal products

None of the above - The registrant is responsible for the safe storage of the medicinal products. At administration time, the patient will ask the registrant to open the cabinet or locker. The patient will then self-administer the medication under the supervision of the registrant

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* 6. In a patient with hourly monitoring, when does a nurse formally document the monitoring?

Every hour

When there are significant changes to the patient’s condition

At the end of the shift

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* 7. What is primary care?

The Accident and Emergency Room

GP practices, dental practices, community pharmacies and high street optometrists

First aid provided on the street

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* 8. What infection control steps should not be taken in a patient with diarrhoea caused by Clostridium Difficile?

Isolation of the patient

All staff must wear aprons and gloves while attending the patient

All staff will be required to wash their hands before and after contact with the patient, their bed linen and soiled items

Oral administration of metronidazole, vancomycin, fidaxomicin may be required

None of the above

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* 9. Independent Advocacy is:

Providing general advice

Making decisions for someone

Care and support work

Agreeing with everything a person says and doing anything a person asks you to do

None of the above *

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* 10. Which of the following are not signs of a speed shock?

Flushed face

Headache and dizziness

Tachycardia and fall in blood pressure

Peripheral oedema

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* 11. Recommended preoperative fasting times are:

2-4 hours

6-12 hours

12-14 hours

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* 12. Compassion in Practice – the culture of compassionate care encompasses:

Care, Compassion, Competence, Communication, Courage, Commitment - DoH –“Compassion in Practice”

Care, Compassion, Competence

Competence, Communication, Courage

Care, Courage, Commitment

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* 13. Hospital discharge planning for a patient should start:

When the patient is medically fit

On the admission assessment

When transport is available

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* 14. Examples of offensive/hygiene waste which may be sent for energy recovery at energy from waste facilities can include:

Stoma or catheter bags - The Management of Waste from health, social and personal care -RCN

Unused non-cytotoxic/cytostatic medicines in original packaging

Used sharps from treatment using cytotoxic or cytostatic medicines

Empty medicine bottles

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* 15. Patient usually urinates at night Nurse identifies this as:

Polyuria

Oliguria

Dysuria

Nocturia

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* 16. An overall risk of malnutrition of 2 or higher signifies:

Low risk of malnutrition

Medium risk of malnutrition

High risk of malnutrition

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* 17. The signs and symptoms of ectopic pregnancy except:

Vaginal bleeding

Positive pregnancy test

Shoulder tip pain

Protein excretion exceeds 2 g/day

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* 18. The use of an alcohol-based hand rub for decontamination of hands before and after direct patient contact and clinical care is recommended when:

Hands are visibly soiled

Caring for patients with vomiting or diarrhoeal illness, regardless of whether or not gloves have been worn

Immediately after contact with body fluids, mucous membranes and non-intact skin

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* 19. In DVT TEDS stockings affect circulation by:

increasing blood flow velocity in the legs by compression of the deep venous system - thromboembolism-deterrent hose

decreasing blood flow velocity in legs by compression of the deep venous system

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* 20. What medications would most likely increase the risk for fall?

Loop diuretic

Hypnotics

Betablockers

Nsaids

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* 21. Causes of diarrhoea in Clostridium Difficile are:

Ulcerative colitis - Ulcerative Colitis is a condition that causes inflammation and ulceration of the inner lining of the rectum and colon

Hashimotos disease - Hashimoto’s disease, also called chronic lymphocytic thyroiditis or autoimmune thyroiditis, is an autoimmune disease

Pseudomembranous colitis -pseudomembranous colitis (PMC) is an acute, exudative colitis usually caused by Clostridium difficile. PMC can rarely be caused by other bacteria,

Crohn’s disease - Crohn’s Disease is one of the two main forms of Inflammatory Bowel Disease, so may also be called ‘IBD’. The other main form of IBD is a condition known as Ulcerative Colitis

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* 22. What do you expect to manifest with fluid volume deficit?

Low pulse, Low Bp

High pulse, High BP

High Pulse, low BP

Low Pulse, high BP

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* 23. Wound care management plan should be done with what type of wound?

Complex wound

Infected wound

Any type of wound

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* 24. Wound proliferation starts after?

1-5 days

3-24 days

24 days

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* 25. Barrier Nursing for C.diff patient what should you not do?

Use of hand gel/ alcohol rub

Use gloves

Patient has his own set of washers

Strict disinfection of pt’s room after isolation

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* 26. When will you consider giving out information of the patient to a police officer?

If he has a rank of an inspector

If safety of the public is at risk

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* 27. When should adult patients in acute hospital settings have observations taken?

When they are admitted or initially assessed, A plan should be clearly documented which identifies which observations should be taken and how frequently subsequent observations should be done.

When they are admitted and then once daily unless they deteriorate.

As indicated by the doctor.

Temperature should be taken daily, respirations at night, pulse and blood pressure 4 hourly.

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* 28. Why are physiological scoring systems or early warning scoring systems used in clinical practice?

They help the nursing staff to accurately predict patient dependency on a shift by shift basis.

The system provides an early accurate predictor of deterioration by identifying physiological criteria that alert the nursing staff to a patient at risk.

These scoring systems are carried out as part of a national audit so we know how sick patients are in the United Kingdom.

They enable nurses to call for assistance from the outreach team or the doctors via an electronic communication system.

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* 29. You are caring for a patient who has had a recent head injury and you have been asked to carry out neurological observations every 15 minutes. You assess and find that his pupils are unequal and one is not reactive to light. You are no longer able to rouse him. What are your actions?

Continue with your neurological assessment, calculate your Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) and document clearly.

This is a medical emergency. Basic airway, breathing and circulation should be attended to urgently and senior help should be sought.

Refer to the neurology team.

Break down the patient's Glasgow Coma Scale as follows: best verbal response V = XX, best motor response M = XX and eye opening E = XX. Use this when you hand over.

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* 30. What are the professional responsibilities of the qualified nurse in medicines management?

Making sure that the group of patients that they are caring for receive their medications on time. If they are not competent to administer intravenous medications, they should ask a competent nursing colleague to do so on their behalf.

The safe handling and administration of all medicines to patients in their care. This includes making sure that patients understand the medicines they are taking, the reason they are taking them and the likely side effects.

Making sure they know the names, actions, doses and side effects of all the medications used in their area of clinical practice.

To liaise closely with pharmacy so that their knowledge is kept up to date.

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* 31. On checking the stock balance in the controlled drug record book as a newly qualified nurse, you and a colleague notice a discrepancy. What would you do?

Check the cupboard, record book and order book. If the missing drugs aren't found, contact pharmacy to resolve the issue. You will also complete an incident form.

Document the discrepancy on an incident form and contact the senior pharmacist on duty.

Check the cupboard, record book and order book. If the missing drugs aren't found the police need to be informed.

Check the cupboard, record book and order book and inform the registered nurse or person in charge of the clinical area. If the missing drugs are not found then inform the most senior nurse on duty. You will also complete an incident form.

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* 32. It is important that patients are effectively fasted prior to surgery in order to:

reduce the risk of vomiting.

reduce the risk of reflux and inhalation of gastric contents.

prevent vomiting and chest infections.

prevent the patient gagging.

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* 33. What are the principles of gaining informed consent prior to a planned surgery?

Gaining permission for an imminent procedure by providing information in medical terms, ensuring a patient knows the potential risks and intended benefits.

Gaining permission from a patient who is competent to give it, by providing information, both verbally and with written material, relating to the planned procedure, for them to read on

the day of planned surgery.

Gaining permission from a patient who is competent to give it, by informing them about the procedure and highlighting risks if the procedure is not carried out.

Gaining permission from a patient who is competent to give it, by providing information in understandable terms prior to surgery, allowing time for answering questions, and inviting voluntary participation.

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* 34. Anti-embolic stockings an effective means of reducing the potential of developing a deep vein thrombosis because:

They promote arterial blood flow.

They promote venous blood flow.

They reduce the risk of postoperative swelling.

They promote lymphatic fluid flow, and drainage.

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* 35. What functions should a dressing fulfil for effective wound healing?

High humidity, insulation, gaseous exchange, absorbent.

Anaerobic, impermeable, conformable, low humidity.

Insulation, low humidity, sterile, high adherence.

Absorbent, low adherence, anaerobic, high humidity.

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* 36. When would it be beneficial to use a wound care plan?

on initial assessment of wound

during pre-assessment admission

after surgery

during wound infection, dehiscence or evisceration

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* 37. Which of the following displays the proper use of Zimmer frame?

using a 1 point gait

using a 2 point gait

using a 3 point gait

using a 4 point gait

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* 38. What are the signs and symptoms of shock during early stage (stage 1-3)?

hypoxemia

tachycardia and hyperventilation

hypotension

acidosis

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* 39. A patient just had just undergone lumbar laminectomy, what is the best nursing intervention?

move the body as a unit

move one body part at a time

move the head first and the feet last

never move the patient at all

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* 40. Which of the following is a sign of dehydration in the elderly?

diminished skin turgor

hypertension

anxiety attacks

pyrexia

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* 41. You walk onto one of the bay on your ward and noticed a colleague wrongly using a hoist in transferring their patient. As a nurse you will:

let them continue with their work as you are not in charge of that bay

report the event to the unit manager

call the manual handling specialist nurse for training

inform the relatives of the mistake

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* 42. Which of the following is not a component of end of life care?

resuscitation and defibrillation

reduce pain

maintain dignity

provide family support

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* 43. You are the named nurse of Mr Corbyn who has just undergone an abdominal surgery 4 hours ago. You have administered his regular analgesia 2 hours ago and he is still complaining of pain. Your most immediate, most appropriate nursing action?

call the doctor

assist patient in a comfortable position

give another dose

look for a heating pad

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* 44. Which of the following is a severe complication during 24 hrs post liver biopsy?

pain at insertion site

nausea and vomiting

back pain

bleeding

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* 45. Which of the following are signs of anaphylaxis?

swelling of tongue and rashes

dyspnoea, hypotension and tachycardia

hypertension and hyperthermia

cold and clammy skin

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* 46. Which of the following senses is to fade last when a person dies?

hearing

smelling

seeing

speaking

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* 47. Mr Green, a COPD patient was sent home with oxygen prescription at 2 litres per minute. He is dyspnoeic, anxious and panicking when you visited him. What is your most immediate nursing action to relieve dyspnoea?

Call the emergency department for ambulance

Increase O2 rate

Tell patient to calm down in a loud voice

Calmly instruct patient to do deep breathing

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* 48. You have observed an IV catheter insertion site w/ erythema, swelling, pain and warm? What VIP score would you document on his notes?

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* 49. What is the best nursing action for this insertion site (Q49. You have observed an IV catheter insertion site w/ erythema, swelling, pain and warm..)

start antibiotics

re-site cannula

call doctor

elevate

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* 50. How do you remove a negative pressure dressing?

Remove pressure then detach dressing gently

Get TVN nurse to remove dressing

remove in a quick fashion

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* 51. We are always striving to improve our service and support to overseas nurses. Any feedback or suggestions that you might have can be made in the comment box below. If you are not registered with MMA Healthcare Recruitment and would like to receive a copy of our free CBT study guide, please provide your name and e-mail address.
http://www.mmarecruitment.com/

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